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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

11.06.2025 00:06

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

How do atheists explain the fact that when I pray to God, I feel better and I get a feeling of comfort? Doesn’t this prove that a God exists?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Astronomers are stunned after the quiet development of the largest telescope ever built in China. - Farmingdale Observer

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Have you ever answered your door in lingerie?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.